Beckford’s Vathek delineates heteronormative and homoerotic impulses through a kind of Orientalist discourse. The two main questions follow: First, how does Beckford manipulate Orientalism in the novel to convince you of its “eastern” origins? Second, how does Orientalism allow Beckford to pursure the homoerotic or forbidden sexual impulses, ones you would never see in more conventional writing of the period? My essay on Beckford should help you in this effort.
2. Are Orientalist depictions inherently racist? Research Orientalist painting during the Romantic period (e.g. Delacroix, Ingres, Gérôme). How are we to take these beautiful paintings in terms of the cultures and peoples they represent? Does Beckford do the same thing in his narrative?
One question for 250 words answer, no reference, use your own word
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